The Bible's Viewpoint - What Happens After Death?

According to the Bible, there is no activity, feeling, emotion, or thought in death. (Ecclesiastes 9:5, 6,
10)

The simple truth is that no person has had a prehuman existence to remember. Before you were conceived, you did not exist.

So it is logical to conclude that when we die, our consciousness returns to exactly the same state it was before we were alive.

That is why God told Adam after he disobeyed: “For dust you are and to dust you will return.” (Genesis 3:19)

However, due to Christ’s ransom sacrifice there is the hope of a resurrection. (1 Corinthians 15:22) Consider the account at (John 11:11-14), when Lazarus died, Jesus said: “I am journeying there to awaken him from sleep.” Like Lazarus, the Bible talks about a promised hope in the future FOR US:

"The hour is coming in which all those in the memorial tombs will hear [Jesus'] voice and come out." (John 5:28, 29)

"There is going to be a resurrection of both the righteous and the unrighteous." - Acts 24:15

Recommended Related Articles:

What Will Happen When I Die?
http://www.jw.org/en/publications/magazines/wp20121101/what-happens-when-you-die/

Death—Is It Really the End?
http://www.jw.org/en/publications/magazines/g200809/death-is-it-the-end/

What Hope Is There for the Dead?
http://www.jw.org/en/publications/books/good-news-from-god/what-hope-for-the-dead/

Which Worldwide Religion Bears God's Name 'Jehovah'?

Which Worldwide Religion Bears God's Name 'Jehovah'?

Ps. 83:18 identifies God's name: 
"That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth." (KJV) 

(Also notice Ps. 83:18 from the ASV, Darby, WBT, TMB and YLT Bibles at the following link.) 
http://www.biblestudytools.com/psalms/83-18-compare.html

Jehovah's Witnesses are well known for educating others about God's personal name which occurs in the Bible nearly 7,000 times. 
http://www.jw.org/en/bible-teachings/questions/gods-name/

Concerning Jehovah's Witnesses, it is also interesting that there seems to be no other readily-identifiable, world-wide religious group that use the personal name of God to identify themselves today. (Acts 15:14, 15) 

"Ye are my witnesses, saith Jehovah, and my servant whom I have chosen;" (Isaiah 43:10) ASV

Do All Good Persons Go To Heaven?

Do All Good Persons Go To Heaven? When Lazarus died, if he really went to heaven, would it make any sense for Jesus to resurrect Lazarus and essentially recall him back from heaven to his physical body on Earth? Would Jesus really be doing him a favor?

The Bible does not teach that all good people go to heaven. In fact, Acts 2:34 specifically mentions one good person that did not go to heaven:

"David [whom the Bible refers to as being `a man agreeable to Jehovah's heart'] did not ascend to the heavens."

And John the Baptist was a good man. Yet, Jesus indicated that he would not be exalted to rule as a king in heaven. (Matthew 11:11)

Where Was Lazarus During the Four Days After His Death?

Jesus knew full well the condition of the dead which is what the Bible consistently tells us - that the dead are “conscious of nothing at all.” (Eccl. 9:5, 10; Ps. 146:4) That is why death is like sleep and why Jesus likened Lazarus' state to sleep:

"After he had said this, he went on to tell them, "Our friend Lazarus has fallen asleep; but I am going there to wake him up." His disciples replied, "LORD, if he sleeps, he will get better." Jesus had been speaking of his death, but his disciples thought he meant natural sleep. So then he told them plainly, "Lazarus is dead." (John 11:11-14) - NIV

Notice these other occurrences in the Bible where death is likened to sleep:

"But let me tell you a wonderful secret God has revealed to us. Not all of us will die ("sleep", ASV; ESV; RSV KJV; NKJV; NIV), but we will all be transformed." (1 Cor. 15:51) - NLT

"But we do not want you to be uninformed, brothers and sisters, about those who have died ("asleep", NIV; KJV; NKJV; NRV; ASV; Young's), so that you may not grieve as others do who have no hope." (1 Thess. 4:13) - NRS

So when we die we are said to “sleep” because due to Christ’s ransom sacrifice there is the hope of a resurrection. (1 Corinthians 15:22) Were it not for God’s purpose to awaken persons from the sleep of death, they would never wake up. (See Job 14:10-15 and Jer. 51:39, 57)

What is the Outcome For Good People?

The Bible shows that only 144,000 will be "bought from the earth" and have the hope of heavenly life. (Rev. 14:1-3) But the Bible also shows that God's original purpose was for mankind to live on earth. (Gen. 2:17)

Ps. 115:16 says: "The heavens are the Lord's heavens, but the earth he has given to human beings." (NRS)

"God created the heavens and earth and put everything in place. He made the world to be lived in, not to be a place of empty chaos." (Isa, 45:18) NLT

Like Lazarus, the Bible talks about a promised hope in the future for us:

"The hour is coming in which all those in the memorial tombs will hear [Jesus'] voice and come out." (John 5:28, 29)

"There is going to be a resurrection of both the righteous and the unrighteous." - Acts 24:15.

Recommended Related Articles:

Do All Good People Go to Heaven?
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2010082

Who will go to heaven, and why?
http://www.jw.org/en/publications/magazines/wp20131101/who-goes-to-heaven/

Hope for the Dead—The Resurrection
http://www.jw.org/en/publications/magazines/wp20140101/resurrection-hope-for-the-dead/

What Does it Mean to Take God's Name "in vain"? (Ex. 20:7)

What Does it Mean to Take God's Name "in vain"? (Ex. 20:7)

Comparing different Bible translations of this Scripture is one way to understanding what is meant here.

Ex. 20:7 in the ASV says:

"Thou shalt not take the name of Jehovah thy God in vain; for Jehovah will not hold him guiltless that taketh his name in vain." 

Note how other translations render the same verse:

"Do not use my name for evil purposes..." (Good News Translation)

"Never use the name of the LORD your God carelessly..." (God's Word Translation)

""You are not to use lightly the name..." (Complete Jewish Bible)

"You are not to make use of the name...for an evil purpose..." (Bible in Basic English)

“You must not take up the name of Jehovah your God in a worthless way..." (NWT)
------------------------------------------------

The context of this Scripture additionally aids to understanding the intended meaning.

God’s name 'Jehovah' was made known in a special way when he delivered the Israelites from Egypt as his chosen nation. He put His name on that people and gave them His law: “And now if you will strictly obey my voice and will indeed keep my covenant, then you will certainly become my special property out of all other peoples, because the whole earth belongs to me. And you yourselves will become to me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.” (Ex. 19:5, 6) The Israelites agreed to obey and be Jehovah’s special property with his name on them. They were warned: “You must not take up the name of Jehovah your God in a worthless way, for Jehovah will not leave the one unpunished who takes up his name in a worthless way.” (Ex. 20:7) NWT

So when this third one of the Ten Commandments says not to take God’s name in vain or in a worthless way, it means much more than not using His name in profanity. It means that those who agree to be God’s people bear his name and must obey the laws and commands and principles his name stands for; otherwise they are taking his name in a worthless way and will not go unpunished.

This law forbids the misuse of God’s name. But it does not forbid the respectful use of His name. 
  
There is nothing in the Scriptures that says that this name should not be used. God said not to take His name “in vain,” or “in a worthless way.” But that does not mean that we should not use the name. Rather, it means that servants of Jehovah should not do things that discredit his name. God’s decree against the improper use of his name was twisted into a superstition.

A significant example of taking God’s name in a worthless way is that of the mighty Egyptian Pharaoh. Sneeringly he replied to Moses and Aaron, who appeared before him in God’s name: “Who is Jehovah, so that I should obey his voice . . . ? I do not know Jehovah at all.” His words and actions declared his utter disrespect for Jehovah God and his glorious name. (Ex. 5:2)

For more, see:

“You must not take up the name of Jehovah your God in a worthless way.” (Ex 20:7) (Insight-2 pp. 1085-1087; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200004367?q=god%27s+name+vain&p=par

The Third Commandment (g04 1/22 pp. 5-9; Watchtower Online Library)
The Encyclopaedia Judaica says that “the avoidance of pronouncing the name YHWH . . . was caused by a misunderstanding of the Third Commandment.” Hence, God’s decree against the improper use of his name was twisted into a superstition.
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/102004042#h=5:0-8:482

“To avoid the risk of taking God’s name (YHWH) in vain, devout Jews began to substitute the word ʼǎdōnā(y) for the proper name itself." (Rbi8 pp. 1561-1562 1A The Divine Name in the Hebrew Scriptures; Watchtower Online Library)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1001060073?q=god%27s+name+vain&p=par

What Does "Hallelujah" Mean?

The expression “Hallelujah,” which occurs 24 times in the Hebrew Scriptures, literally is a command to a number of people to “praise Jah” - a poetic shortened form of 'Jehovah', the name of the Most High God. (Ex 15:1, 2) 

"The word halal is the source of `Hallelujah,' a Hebrew expression of `praise' to God which has been taken over into virtually every language of mankind. The Hebrew `Hallelujah' is generally translated [falsely], `Praise the Lord!' The Hebrew is more technically [more honestly] translated `Let us praise Yah,' the term `Yah' being a shortened form of `Yahweh,' the unique Israelite name for God." - p. 301, - Nelson's Expository Dictionary of the Old Testament, Unger and White, Thomas Nelson Publ., 1980. 

"Hallelujah - Praise ye Jehovah - frequently rendered [falsely] `Praise Ye the Lord" - p. 276. "Jah - a shortened form of `Jehovah,'" - p. 322, Today's Bible Dictionary,Bethany House Publishers, 1982. 

"HALLELUJAH ... 'praise ye Jehovah'; allelouia .... In the NT ['Hallelujah'] is found as part of the song of the heavenly host (Rev. 19:1 ff)." - p. 1323, Vol. 2, The International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, Eerdmans Publ., 1984 printing. 

"hallelujah: (Heb., hillel, he praises; Jah, form of Yahweh-Jehovah....) Literally, Praise ye Yahweh." - p. 320, An Encyclopedia of Religion, Ferm (editor), 1945 ed. 

"HALLELUJAH - HALLELOUIA [in NT Greek] signifies `Praise ye Jah.' .... In the N.T. it is found in Rev. 19:1, 3, 4, 6, as the keynote in the song of the great multitude in Heaven. Alleluia, without the initial H, is a misspelling." - p. 520, W. E. Vine, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, Thomas Nelson, Inc., Publishers, 1980. 

"ALLELUIA, the Greek form (Revelation 19:1, 3, 4, 6) of the Hebrew Hallelujah = Praise ye Jehovah, which begins or ends several of the psalms (106, 111, 112, 113, etc.)." – Easton's Bible Dictionary, Thomas Nelson Publ., 1897. 

The NT Greek text does have the initial `H' sound. The "misspelling" is in certain English translations (e.g., KJV) which drop the beginning `H' sound: "Alleluia"! However, most respected modern translations do have "Hallelujah" in Rev. 19 (e.g., NIV, NASB, RSV, NRSV, ASV, REB, MLB, Mo, and Barclay). 

"Hallelujah....is derived from halal, which means to praise, and Jah, which is the name of God .... here in this chapter [Rev. 19] the original Hebrew form transliterated into Greek, is retained." - p. 169, Vol. 2, William Barclay, The Revelation of John, Revised Edition, The Daily Study Bible Series, Westminster Press, 1976. 

"Alleluia, so written in Rev. 19:6, foll., or more properly Hallelujah, Praise ye Jehovah ...." - p. 31. "Jah (Jehovah), the abbreviated form of Jehovah ... The identity of Jah and Jehovah is strongly marked in two passages of Isaiah - 12:2; 26:4." - p. 276, Smith's Bible Dictionary, William Smith, Hendrickson Publ. 

"Trust ye in Jehovah for ever; for in Jehovah ['Heb. JAH' - ASV f. n.], even Jehovah [YHWH], is an everlasting rock." - Is. 26:4, ASV. 

Yes, Jah is equivalent to Jehovah. Two different forms of the very same PERSONAL NAME of God. (This is likely equivalent to the way Greek manuscripts often abbreviated "God" [Qeos, 'theos'] as QS. If so, Jah would still be pronounced "Jehovah" or "Yahweh".) 

Psalm 68:4, King James Version - "Sing unto God, sing praises to his name; extol him...by his name JAH ['Jehovah' - ASV; LB]..." 

Of course, the Gentile manuscript copyists of later centuries probably did not know that "Abi-JAH" ("The Father is Jehovah"), "Eli-JAH," ("God is Jehovah"), etc. are transliterations that actually use the shortened form of God's personal name ("Jah") and certainly didn't know that "Hallelujah" (Rev. 19:1, 3, 4, 6) is really Hebrew for "Praise Jah" or they would have surely changed them all also. However, the inspired Jewish Christians who actually wrote the original NT manuscripts certainly knew that writing or proclaiming aloud "Hallelu JAH!" (whether in Hebrew characters or Greek characters) was writing (or proclaiming aloud) God's personal name. If the Jewish Christian and Apostle John had left God's name out of the NT originally, he surely would not have then used "Hallelu JAH!" in four places in Revelation 19, for he knew exactly what it truly said: "Praise ye Jehovah"! Only the Hebrew-ignorant Gentile "Christian" copyists would be fooled by "Hallelujah" exactly as they were when they removed and changed the Divine Name in the Septuagint about the same time). 

SOURCE: Hallelujah / Jah - The Removal of God's Name and Why "Hallelujah" Remained
http://defendingjehovahswitnesses.blogspot.com/2012/09/hallelujah-jah-removal-of-gods-name-and.html

More Information Concerning This Can Be Found In the Following Articles: 

Jah
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200002288?q=Hallelujah&p=par

HALLELUJAH (Watchtower Online Library INDEX)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200272571

HALLELUJAH (Insight on the Scriptures, Volume 1)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200001830

What Does it Mean to "Fear" God?

What Does it Mean to "Fear" God?

The Bible shows that there is a proper fear and an improper fear. The proper fear of God is an awe and a reverence for Him and is a wholesome dread of displeasing Him.

This proper fear of God is “the beginning of wisdom” (Ps 111:10), “the start of wisdom.” (Pr 9:10) “The fear of God is pure.” (Ps 19:9)

This fear is defined at Proverbs 8:13: “The fear of God means the hating of bad” and “in the fear of God one turns away from bad.” (Pr 16:6)

Recommended Related Articles:

What is the fear of Jehovah that we should have?
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200001500?q=What+is+the+fear+of+Jehovah+that+we+should+have&p=par

Be Wise—Fear God!
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2006565

Enjoy Life in the Fear of Jehovah
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2007164

What Language Did Adam and Eve Speak?

What Language Did Adam and Eve Speak?

The Bible says that before the Flood, all mankind “continued to be of one language and of one set of words.” (Gen. 11:1) The Bible indicates that the language later called Hebrew was that original “one language.” (See below.) This does not mean that all other languages stemmed from and are related to Hebrew but that Hebrew preceded all other languages.

(The following is a brief excerpt from Insight on the Scriptures, pp.1068-1077, Hebrew, II):

Origin of the Hebrew Language 

Secular history does not reveal the origin of the Hebrew language—or, for that matter, of any of the most ancient languages known, such as Sumerian, Akkadian (Assyro-Babylonian), Aramaean, and Egyptian. This is because these tongues appear already fully developed in the earliest written records men have found. The various views advanced by scholars concerning the origin and development of Hebrew—such as those claiming that Hebrew derived from Aramaic or from some Canaanite dialect—are therefore conjectural. The same may be said for attempts at explaining the derivation of many words found in the Hebrew Scriptures. Scholars frequently assign an Akkadian or an Aramaic source for many of these words. However, as Dr. Edward Horowitz comments: “In the field of etymology [the study of word origins] there are wide differences of opinion among scholars, even among the very best of them.” He then cites examples of explanations by renowned scholars of the etymology of certain Hebrew words, in each case showing that other prominent scholars disagree, and then adds: “And so we have these never ending differences between equally highly respected authorities.”— How the Hebrew Language Grew, 1960, pp. xix, xx.

The Bible is the only historical source giving reliable evidence of the origin of the language that we know as Hebrew. It was, of course, spoken by the Israelite descendants of “Abram the Hebrew” (Ge 14:13), who, in turn, was descended from Noah’s son Shem. (Ge 11:10-26) In view of God’s prophetic blessing on Shem (Ge 9:26), it is reasonable to believe that Shem’s language was not affected when God confused the language of the disapproved people at Babel. (Ge 11:5-9) Shem’s language would remain the same as it had been previously, the “one language” that had existed from Adam onward. (Ge 11:1) This would mean that the language that eventually came to be called Hebrew was the one original tongue of mankind. As stated, secular history knows no other. - _Insight on the Scriptures,_ pp.1068-1077, Hebrew, II
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200001953

Recommended Related Articles:

Did Our Languages Come From the “Tower of Babel”?
http://www.jw.org/en/publications/magazines/wp20130901/did-languages-come-from-the-tower-of-babel/

LANGUAGE(S)
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200273357

1 Cor. 11:3 - "The Head of Christ is God."

This Scripture (1 Cor. 11:3), as well as the Bible throughout, clearly shows that Jesus Christ is not God. People who believe that Jesus is God have absolutely no logical response to this. 

The God-ordained principle of headship in the Christian congregation states as follows:

"But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn, the head of a woman is the man; in turn, the head of the Christ is God." (1 Cor. 11:3) NWT 

This verse plainly states that in the same way that Jesus exercises headship over man and man exercises headship over the woman, God also exercises headship over Christ. God does not have a head or superior. 

Not only is God indicated to be superior over Christ here, but God is phrased as a separate person from Christ. Additionally, this Scripture was written about Christ when he is in heaven - not on earth - so Trinitarians cannot use the common excuse for this Scripture that he was merely a man at the time. 

1 Cor. 11:3 can also be used in conjunction with 1 Cor.15:28 which shows that Jesus subjects himself to God, and also phrases Jesus as a separate and distinct individual from God. 

Recommended Related Articles:

“The head of every man is the Christ.”—1 COR. 11:3.
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/pc/r1/lp-e/1200270046/173/0

1 Cor. 11:3
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989276#h=27:0-27:412

Can it be proved Scripturally How Long Noah Preached? Does not Genesis 6:3 speak of a 120-year period?

• Can it be proved Scripturally How Long Noah Preached? Does not Genesis 6:3 speak of a 120-year period?

We must be careful not to read into the Scriptures what they do not say or jump to a conclusion on the basis of one text alone. True, Genesis 6:3 indicates that at a certain time in man’s history God was giving that pre-flood world 120 more years. But it was not at that time that he gave Noah the information and told him to build the ark. How do we know?

Because Genesis 5:32 tells us that after Noah became five hundred years old and the flood was less than a hundred years away he first “became father to Shem, Ham and Japheth.” (NW) And not only that, but when God gave Noah the command to build the ark all these three sons were grown and married, Noah at that time having three daughters-in-law. (Gen. 6:18) By the time all three of his sons grew to manhood and married, according to the custom of those days, no doubt some fifty to sixty years passed. Since most likely his preaching began with his building of the ark it is reasonable to conclude that the length of his preaching was between forty and fifty years and not one hundred and twenty years. 
- 5-15-57 Watchtower;  Questions from Readers

For much more, see:

SURVIVING A GLOBAL DELUGE (The Watchtower (2012) w12 4/15 pp. 22-26; JW.ORG)

Was Jehovah limiting the life span of humans to 120 years, and did Noah preach about the coming Flood for that long? (Questions From Readers; The Watchtower (2010) w10 12/15 pp. 30-31; JW.ORG)

Jehovah’s Long-Suffering Before the Flood (The Watchtower (2001) w01 11/1 pp. 8-13; JW.ORG)

Gen. 6:2 - Who were the "Sons of God" as Mentioned in This Scriptural Passage?

The most likely interpretation is that these "sons of God" were angels:

"'Son of God' in the OT can refer to a 'heavenly court' of supernatural beings [angels] (Gen. 6:2, 4; Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7; Ps. 29:1; 82:6; 89:6 ...)" - p. 571, Vol. 4, The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1988. [Bracketed information added.]

Further supporting this is how the Bible mentions that it was disobedient angels that left their place in heaven during the time of Noah, came down to the earth, and took on fleshly bodies:

"The angels that did not keep their original position but forsook their own proper dwelling place..." (Jude 6)

Their *reason* for doing this is explained in the following Scripture:

“The sons of the true God began to notice the daughters of men, that they were good-looking; and they went taking wives for themselves, namely, all whom they chose.” (Genesis 6:2)

Supporting the conclusion that these were ANGELIC "sons of God" is the apostle Peter’s references to “the spirits in prison, who had once been disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in Noah’s days” (1 Pet. 3:19, 20), and to “the angels that sinned,” mentioned in connection with the “ancient world” of Noah’s time. (2 Pet. 2:4, 5)

For more, see these posts at my other blogs:

Were the "sons of God" mentioned in Genesis 6:2 angels, and if so, how could they produce offspring (Nephilim) in the time of Noah?
http://searchforbibletruths.blogspot.com/2010/06/since-angels-are-spirits-how-did-they.html

Identifying the Nephilim
http://defendingjehovahswitnesses.blogspot.com/2013/10/identifying-nephilim.html

Gen. 2:17 - Did God Lie When He Said That Adam and Eve Would Die the Day They Ate the Fruit When They Actually Died Hundreds of Years Later?

The truth is that God did not lie. He said in Gen. 2:17, "But as for the tree of the knowledge of good and bad you must not eat from it, for in the day you eat from it you will positively die.”

Yes, they died hundreds of years later - but they did die.

If the argument is that they didn't die within that 24-hour period, we need to understand that many times the Bible uses the word “day” in a flexible or figurative sense:

“the day of God’s creating Adam” (Ge 5:1), “the day of Jehovah” (Zep 1:7), the “day of fury” (Zep 1:15), “the day of salvation” (2Co 6:2), “the day of judgment” (2Pe 3:7), “the great day of God the Almighty” (Re 16:14), and others.

This flexible use of the word “day” to express units of time of varying length is clearly evident in the Genesis account of creation. At Hebrews 4:1-10 the apostle Paul indicated that God’s rest day was still continuing in his generation, and that was more than 4,000 years after that seventh-day rest period began. This makes it evident that each creative day, or work period, was at least thousands of years in length. As A Religious Encyclopaedia (Vol. I, p. 613) observes: “The days of creation were creative days, stages in the process, but not days of twenty-four hours each.”—Edited by P. Schaff, 1894.

Even the entire period of the six time units or creative “days” dedicated to the preparation of planet Earth is summed up in one all-embracing “day” at Genesis 2:4: “This is a history of the heavens and the earth in the time of their being created, in the day that Jehovah God made earth and heaven.”

Man’s situation does not compare with that of the Creator, who does not reside within our solar system and who is not affected by its various cycles and orbits. Of God, who is from time indefinite to time indefinite, the psalmist says: “For a thousand years are in your eyes but as yesterday when it is past, and as a watch during the night.” (Ps 90:2, 4) Correspondingly, the apostle Peter writes that “one day is with Jehovah as a thousand years and a thousand years as one day.” (2Pe 3:8) For man, a 1,000-year period represents some 365,242 individual time units of day and night, but to the Creator it can be just one unbroken time period in which He begins the carrying out of some purposeful activity and brings it on to its successful conclusion, much as a man begins a task in the morning and concludes it by the day’s end.

Additional Reading:

Adam’s Sin
http://www.jw.org/en/publications/books/bible-teach/what-is-gods-purpose-for-the-earth/

Day
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200001132

Gen. 3:22 - Who is the "us" as stated by God at Genesis 3:22?

To help us understand who "us" is at Genesis 3:22, we need to see what the situation was like in heaven when God spoke these words. The Bible says that the Father, Jehovah God created His son Jesus as the very first of all creation: 

Rev. 3:14 says that Jesus is "the Beginning of the creation of God". NASB 

John 1:18 says that Jesus is God's "only BEGOTTEN Son". ASV 

Col. 1:15 says that Jesus is "the FIRSTBORN of all creation". 

So when God said "Let us make man in our image" at Gen. 1:26, and “The man has become like one of us in knowing good and bad” at Gen. 3:22), God was speaking to His only-begotten Son Jesus, His Master Worker, the first-born of all creation, *through* whom all other things came into existence. (Prov. 8:30, 31; also compare John 1:1-3; Col 1:15-17.) 

Here is a very good article about this: 

To whom was God referring as “one of us” at Genesis 3:22? 
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2003766#s=0:0-6:571

Gen. 3:19 - "...For dust you are and to dust you will return.” What was God condemning, the body, the personality or the person?

According to the Bible, there is no activity, feeling, emotion, or thought in death. (Ecclesiastes 9:5, 6, 10) 

The simple truth is that no person has had a prehuman existence to remember. Before you were conceived, you did not exist. 

So it is logical to conclude that when we die, our consciousness returns to exactly the same state it was before we were alive. 

That is why God told Adam after he disobeyed: “For dust you are and to dust you will return.” (Genesis 3:19) 

Recommended Related Articles: 

A Closer Look at Some Myths About Death 
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2002401

Is Death Really the End? - Hope From the God of Life 
http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/102007442

Gen. 2:19 - Why are there two different versions of the creation story in Genesis?

This question reminded me of the four gospels: Matthew, Mark, Luke and John's accounts. Though these books differ slightly in the treatment of the material, they are still in perfect agreement with each other. We just have four separate accounts from slightly different points of view.

In regard to Adam’s creation, Moses, in compiling the book of Genesis referred to written records or “histories” that predated the Flood. The first of these begins with Genesis 1:1 and ends at Genesis 2:4 with the words, “This is the history of the heavens and the earth . . . ” The second historical document begins with Genesis 2:5 and ends with verse two of chapter five. This is why we have two separate accounts of creation from slightly different points of view.

In the second of these accounts, in GENESIS 2:19, the original Hebrew verb translated “WAS FORMING” is in the progressive imperfect form. This does not mean that the animals and birds were created after Adam was created. Genesis 1:20-28 shows it does not mean that. So, in order to avoid contradiction between chapter one and chapter two, Genesis 2:19, 20 must be only a parenthetical remark thrown in to explain the need for creating a “helper” for man. So the progressive Hebrew verb form could also be rendered as “had been forming.”—See Rotherham’s translation (Ro), also Leeser’s (Le).

These two creation accounts in the book of Genesis, though differing slightly in the treatment of the material, are in perfect agreement with each other on all points, including the fact that Eve was created after Adam.

(Please also see the 8-15-68 Watchtower)

Gen. 2:2 - Why Does the Bible Say That Jehovah God "Rested"? He Doesn't Get Tired, So What Does This Mean?

Because Jehovah God enjoys an “abundance of dynamic energy” and “does not tire out or grow weary” (Isaiah 40:26, 28), it is clear that He did not rest because He was tired. 

As the “sixth day” of creation came to a close, the account tells us: “God saw everything he had made and, look! it was very good.” (Genesis 1:31) God was satisfied with everything He had made. Many translations speak of God’s resting on the seventh day with expressions such as "he rested," "he desisted," "he had desisted," from further creative work with respect to the earth. As perfect and beautiful as the paradise garden then was, however, it covered only a small area, and there were just two human creatures on earth. It would take time for the earth and the human family to reach the state that God purposed. For this reason, He appointed a “seventh day” that would allow all that he had created in the preceding six ‘days’ to develop in harmony with his sacred will. (Compare Ephesians 1:11.) 

So God rested (or desisted) from His creative work on “the seventh day.” It is as though He stepped back and allowed what He set in motion to run its course. He has full confidence that by the end of “the seventh day,” everything will have turned out exactly as He has purposed. Even if there have been obstacles, they will have been overcome. 

For more, see: 
7/15/98 Watchtower "Have You Entered Into God’s Rest?"

Gen. 1:26 - Jehovah is Jesus?

Some trintiarians may point to this rare instance of the word "us" at Gen. 1:26 as 'proof' of a trinity. Yet, the Bible throughout overwhelmingly identifies God by the singular person pronouns "I," and "Me," and "He," and "Him". Trinitarians themselves commonly do not refer to their own Triune God as "They," and "Them". This would not be consistent if God really were a trinity. 

When God said "Let us make man in our image" at Gen. 1:26, God was speaking to His Son Jesus, His Master Worker, the first-born of all creation (and, possibly, to the rest of the angels also), who were also made in God's image. (Pr 8:30, 31; also compare John 1:1-3; Col 1:15-17.) 

Also, if the Trinity is correct and God really is composed of three persons, then why does Man (who was created in God's image) not display any kind of a tri-nature about him whatsoever? Certainly if God possessed such a tri-nature, and such a fundamental tri-nature aspect is conspicuously absent in Man, how then could it be said that Man was made in God's image? 

Man is "in God’s image" in that he was created with moral qualities like those of God, such as love and justice. (Compare Col. 3:10) He also has powers and wisdom above those of animals, so that he can appreciate the things that God enjoys and appreciates, such as beauty and the arts, speaking, reasoning, and similar processes of the mind and heart of which the animals are not capable. Man is also capable of spirituality...the knowing and having communication with God. (1 Cor. 2:11-16; Heb 12:9) It was these reasons that man was qualified to be God’s representative and to have in subjection the forms of creature life in the skies, on the earth, and in the sea.

Gen. 1:26 - Does Genesis 1:26 point to a double creation of man?

I'm taking the meaning of your question as being: 

If the Trinity is correct and God really is composed of three persons, then why does Man (who was created in God's image) not display any kind of a tri-nature about him whatsoever? Certainly if God possessed such a tri-nature, and such a fundamental tri-nature aspect is conspicuously absent in Man, how then could it be said that Man was made in God's image? 

Some trintiarians may point to this rare instance at Gen. 1:26 as 'proof' of a trinity. Yet, the bible throughout overwhelmingly identifies God by the singular person pronouns "I," and "Me," and "He," and "Him". Trinitarians themselves commonly do not refer to their own Triune God as "They," and "Them". This would not be consistent if God really were a trinity. 

Actually, when God said "Let us make man in our image" at Gen. 1:26, Jehovah God was speaking to His Son Jesus, His Master Worker, the first-born of all creation (and, possibly, to the rest of the angels also), who were also made in God's image. (Pr. 8:30, 31; also compare John 1:1-3; Col 1:15-17) 

The Scriptures clearly show that God is only one person and that person is identified as the Father: 

"There is actually to us one God the Father.” (1 Cor. 8:5, 6) 

"Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah." (Deut. 6:4) ASV 

It is interesting that even some trinitarian scholars apparently (inadvertently?) admit that Gal. 3:20 shows God to be one person. 

Even the extremely trinitarian The Amplified Bible, which often goes to incredible lengths in its attempt to produce trinitarian “proof” scriptures, renders Gal. 3:20 as: 

“there can be no mediator with just one person. Yet God is [only] one PERSON.” 

We know, however, that the man created by God to be in God's image and likeness (Adam), the son of God (Luke 3:38), was a *single* person. He could have easily been created with three personalities. But God expressly made him in his image with one mind, one personality: one person.